From: "Julius Chang" <[p 00302] at [psilink.com]> Newsgroups: talk.politics.guns Subject: Re: NEJM Study: Dumb question Date: Sun, 24 Oct 93 21:56:51 -0500 Steve Holland <[gila 005] at [uabdpo.dpo.uab.edu]> >Yes, a good point. The assumption that you criticise is that the >purchaser/owner was successful in making the defense, but it looks >like a homicide anyway. I think in the study such cases were thrown >out, but I am not sure. 11 cases of justifiable homicide were excluded. Kellerman et al. never refer to "justifiable homicide", only to "excusable homicide." No doubt that they are wrong since they claim that four of the 15 cases were law enforcement killings and some of the other 11 were in "self-defense." Self-defense should be a justifiable act, not an excusable one. >I think a scenario like above would have been excluded. > I don't see this in the paper. There were 15 cases of what the authors call "legally excusable homicides" (Table 1). On the same page, second column, second paragraph, they say that four victims were shot by law enforcement and the other 11 were "killed by another member of the household or a private citizen acting in self-defense." First, there is a legal difference between "excusable homicide" and justifiable homicide." It appears that Kellerman et al. do not know the difference. Unfamiliarity with the legal and law enforcement definitions of the data collection categories does not inspire confidence in the accuracy of their criminological data. This goes to the point of the definition of an "acquaintance." The authors have not proven that they know what it is and all indications are that they do not. When I further see that the authors try to support their findings by referencing discredited research (see page 1090, second column, first paragraph, references 16 and 17), the credibility of Kellerman et al. plummets. It indicates that Kellerman and Reay have learned nothing in the intervening five years since their Seattle/Vancouver study. Second, I see no mention of excluding these 15 cases because they are "excusable." Even if 11 cases were excluded as you claim, that suggests that the four law enforcement shootings WERE INCLUDED (maybe). And those undoubtably are justifiable, not excusable. The final analysis in Table 4 is based on 316 matched pairs. There were 1860 homicides during the study period. 444 occurred in the home (focus of this research). The authors excluded "24 cases for various reasons" (never clarified). Down to 420 now. Out of the 420, matched controls (based on age, sex and race only) were obtained for 388. The final "logistic regression analysis" was conducted on 316 of the pairs because "72 pairs with missing data on any of the six variables of interest were excluded from this analysis." "Conditional logistic regression analysis requires that data on all the variables of interest be available for both case subjects and their matched controls." Thus, some or all of the excusable homicide cases may have been excluded, but it is never made clear. Based on simple percentages, 316/420*15=11 legally excusable cases may have been INCLUDED. At worst, 316/420*4=3 cases may have been included. This paper is extremely fishy since a lot data is thrown out and only vaguely justified by the authors. When this amount of data is excluded and the authors make no analysis of the effect of non-respondents, one wonders about the meaning of their 95% confidence limits (especially since they don't even have any clue on the statistical distribution of their raw data). If you were a referee for this paper, would you rate it "publish with no changes", "publish with optional suggested changes, "publish with mandatory changes", or "not worthy of publishing"? -Julius